matt.addison at lists.evilgeni.us
Wed Feb 2 11:43:26 CST 2011
On Wed, Feb 2, 2011 at 12:28, david raistrick <drais at icantclick.org> wrote:
> On Wed, 2 Feb 2011, Iljitsch van Beijnum wrote:
> No, the point is that DNS resolvers in different places all use the same
>> addresses. So at the cyber cafe 3003::3003 is the cyber cafe DNS but at the
>> airport 3003::3003 is the airport DNS. (Or in both cases, if they don't run
>> a DNS server, one operated by their ISP.)
> Because no one has ever had a need to coexist with other DNS servers on the
> same subnet, right? After all, there should only ever be 1 authorative
> source of information, and there's no way we would ever want to have an
> exception for that.
Why do they have to be mutually exclusive? What's wrong with having default
well known (potentially anycasted) resolver addresses, which can then be
overridden by RA/DHCP/static configuration?
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