[VoiceOps] ITFS Term vendor question

John Levine johnl at iecc.com
Thu Sep 18 08:56:51 UTC 2014

In article <23734767.2066.1410991191470.JavaMail.root at benjamin.baylink.com> you write:
>---- Original Message -----
>> From: "Nick Crocker" <nick.crocker at gmail.com>
>> Can someone shed some light on how you might be accomplishing this, I have
>> a hard time believing that customers are being told they cannot dial TF
>> numbers in their own country.
>In the US, it's always been my understanding that what we call INWATS calls
>are dipped *at the originating CO*, and the actual toll call across the
>SS7/TDM backbone goes out using either the real 10D DN of the target line,
>or some fake 10D that routes to the appropriate trunk group somehow at the
>destination end.

I was under the impression that the dip returns the IXC that handles
the number, and the call goes out with the original number for the IXC
to handle.  The translation to POTS or whatever happens at the IXC's
SCP.  The SCP could reject the call if there's no route that matches
the condition on the incoming call.  ("The number you are calling is
not available from your area")

There's a lot of 8xx processing that routes based on time of day or
where the caller is or whichever call center is less busy.  That would
seem hard to do if the 8xx number were already translated.  The
originating CO often does the dip to get the 10D target for LNP, but
that's different.

Could someone who understands this better clarify?

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