Ciscos, BGP, L2TPV3 pseudowires and loopback IPs

Wed Nov 10 18:22:40 UTC 2010

e.
> 
> We will need to set up a L2TPV3 tunnel to their old location (single
> homed, no BGP on that side).  Upon initial reading of Cisco docs to do
> this, we will need a routable IP on a loopback interface for starters.

I'm pretty sure this is just a recommendation based on good practise
(routeability to endpoints), I'm sure since you are not multihomed you
can just use "ip local interface WAN1" and be done with it, I seem to
remember doing something similar in an l2tpv3 pw class and it working.

> Using one from the /24 LAN is out unless we subnet it, which we don't
> want to do.
> 
> So the question is, can I just "move" the PTP IP address x.x.129.174
> from the WAN interface to the loopback like this?
> 
>  interface Loopback0
>   ip address x.x.129.174 255.255.255.252  (that's the mask we're using on
>             the WAN- Cisco's loopback examples show .255)
> 
>  interface WAN1 (actually a gigether)
>   ip unnumbered loopback0  (or no ip addr?)
> 
>  neighbor x.x.128.173 update-source Loopback0

No, if you were to do this you should get a new transfer network, you
can't have the same address on two interfaces (and in fact, you should
really be stealing an address from your internal /24 which doesn't
require any re-subnetting (if you are happy for this address to be
unreachable) and it should have a /32 mask...

-- 

David Freedman
Group Network Engineering
Claranet Group